If incriminating evidence is obtained through non-legal means, does that make the evidence void in court?

I saw Dirty Harry the other day, and I was just wondering. Say police broke into my flat without a warrant or any reason, but they found dead bodies and stacks load of cocaine, surely they could still use that as evidence against me and try me for obviously being a murderer, but then maybe the officer would get tried too (for breaking and entering, sorta thing). But the evidence wouldn't be void right?